Trinitarian bias over Tit 2:13?
Tit 2:13 and Distinction?
“…while we wait for the blessed hope--the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ.” NIV
“Looking for the blessed hope and coming of the glory of the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ.” Douay
Original Greek of Tit 2:13
“προσδεχόμενοι τὴν μακαρίαν ἐλπίδα καὶ ἐπιφάνειαν τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου Θεοῦ καὶ Σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ.”
Notwithstanding, that Trinitarian scholars have altered the natural position of the pronoun “hemon” (ἡμῶν) and trying to invoke the supposed “Sharp’s Rule” in order to try and prove that only one person is in view, it is not necessary to have the article in the second clause, in order to show a distinction and that two persons are in view and not one?
I have already shown in a previous paper, that Trinitarians have shifted the position of the pronoun “hemon” for theological reasons, as the natural position of such a pronoun occurs before the expression “Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ.” (Christ Jesus) so that we see n the original Greek “ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ.” (of us/our Christ Jesus) and not “τοῦ μεγάλου Θεοῦ” (of the great God) the pronoun “hemon” is not to be seen before the term “μεγάλου” (great) in any Greek manuscript, that I know of!
It is my intention to add to my previous papers, several examples, in order to show that the article is not necessary in order to show distinction between two persons and that as regards Tit 2:13 the so-called “Sharp’s Rule” is null and void!
Note what Jesus did at Math 21:12:
“Jesus entered the temple courts and drove out all who were buying and selling there. He overturned the tables of the money changers and the benches of those selling doves.” NIVConsider, would we conclude, that the ones “buying and selling” were the same people, i.e. that the buyers were also the sellers simultaneously!
2 Tim 4:1
“I solemnly urge you in the presence of God and Christ Jesus, who will someday judge the living and the dead when he appears to set up his Kingdom:” NLT
Like Math 21:12, would we conclude, that the expression “…God and Christ Jesus…” are referring to the same person [buyers and sellers]!
2 Thess 1:12
“That way the name of our Lord Jesus will be glorified by you, and you by him, according to the grace of our God and Lord, Jesus, the Messiah.” ISV
Eph 5:5
“For you may be sure of this, that everyone who is sexually immoral or impure, or who is covetous (that is, an idolater), has no inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and God.” ESVOther examples could be cited – Acts 15:22; 1 Tim 6:13…!
Again, we would not conclude, that God and Christ are the same person being talked about and that two persons are in view, some Trinitarian translations make the distinction emphatic, by highlighting the genitive “tou” [of the] yet others do not, so if Trinitarian translators feel that in certain Trinitarian translations the distinction of persons is served by not applying the article, just as we see in the above examples, why do Trinitarians insist, that Tit 2:13 has only one person in view, and no distinction is made, if that is the case, why do they not apply that same theological criteria to the above texts; it seems that only when their theology seems threatened or challenged, that they reserve the right to add the article or not, but upon looking at the examples above, that smacks of Trinitarian theological preconceived bias and agenda!
Andrew Graham
